Ant: Re: Ant: Re: Question about T and D
|From:||Steven Williams <feurieaux@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, September 21, 2005, 15:37|
--- Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> schrieb:
> On Sep 20, 2005, at 7:26 PM, Steven Williams wrote:
> > The Semitic languages got their [T]'s and [D]'s
> > from the intervocalic and syllable-final
> > spirantization of plosives, commonly known by the
> > acronym 'begad kefat' (at least in Hebrew).
> > Simply put, the plosives [b], [g], [d], [k], [p]
> > and [t] fricativize into [v], [G], [D], [x], [f]
> > and [T]. This basic theme runs through Hebrew at
> > least.
> This is only true for Hebrew, Aramaic, and possibly
> other Northwest Semitic languages. All Semitic
> languages also inherited original */T/ and */D/,
> which were preserved in Arabic and other languages.
Actually, I should have known that (I had only just
read a 30+ page paper on Semitic phonology a month
ago). Consider me corrected :).
> In Hebrew, original */T/ and */D/ merged into /S/
> and /z/. In Aramaic, they merged into /t/ and /d/.
> In both Hebrew and Aramaic, they eventually
> reappeared as allophones of /t/ and /d/.
So, this explains why Arabic doesn't do the 'begad
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