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Ant: Re: Ant: Re: Question about T and D

From:Steven Williams <feurieaux@...>
Date:Wednesday, September 21, 2005, 15:37
--- Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> schrieb:

> On Sep 20, 2005, at 7:26 PM, Steven Williams wrote: > > The Semitic languages got their [T]'s and [D]'s > > from the intervocalic and syllable-final > > spirantization of plosives, commonly known by the > > acronym 'begad kefat' (at least in Hebrew). > > > > Simply put, the plosives [b], [g], [d], [k], [p] > > and [t] fricativize into [v], [G], [D], [x], [f] > > and [T]. This basic theme runs through Hebrew at > > least.
> This is only true for Hebrew, Aramaic, and possibly > other Northwest Semitic languages. All Semitic > languages also inherited original */T/ and */D/, > which were preserved in Arabic and other languages.
... Actually, I should have known that (I had only just read a 30+ page paper on Semitic phonology a month ago). Consider me corrected :).
> In Hebrew, original */T/ and */D/ merged into /S/ > and /z/. In Aramaic, they merged into /t/ and /d/. > In both Hebrew and Aramaic, they eventually > reappeared as allophones of /t/ and /d/.
So, this explains why Arabic doesn't do the 'begad kefat' thing... Gesendet von Yahoo! Mail: Noch schneller mailen? Yahoo! Messenger: