From: | <morphemeaddict@...> |
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Date: | Sunday, January 28, 2007, 23:09 |
In a message dated 1/28/2007 6:57:37 AM Central Standard Time, conlang@MELROCH.SE writes:> BTW, doesn't /q/ rather much function as the emphatic > counterpart of /k/ in Semitic languages. (Steg, are > you here?) >I think /q/ is just further back in the throat than /k/, not an emphatic version of it. stevo
Eric Christopherson <rakko@...> |