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Re: CHAT: Definite/Indefinite Article Distinction

From:Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@...>
Date:Saturday, September 7, 2002, 18:44
On Sep/07/2002, John Cowan wrote:

> Well, I invite you to examine and give your commentary on > http://www.unidadenladiversidad.com/opinion/opinion_ant/2000/abril_2000/Definiciones.htm > which purports to be an extract from the Dictionary of the Royal Academy > (21st edition) for "hombre": it defines the following phrases:
All these phrases are well constructed, but you miss the sense of them :-) Let me explain: "no tener uno hombre" is a confusing phrase, because it's ... well, sort of "reflexive". Here, "uno" doesn't mean "one" or "a", but more "oneself". So, "no tener uno hombre" could be pedantically translated to "not to have oneself a man", or simply "not to have (got?) a man for oneself". In fact, you could strip the "uno", and it will make perfect sense. I don't even know if "oneself" is correct in english, but you get the idea :-) The rest of the phrases are in the same sense. "uno" is a pronoun, not an article, though it may sound confusing :-) I don't know if you have understood what I mean, but anyway believe this: I am right, and you were wrong. Period :-P ;-))) -- Roberto Suarez Soto

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Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>