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Re: Origin of "rien" and "res"?

From:Elliott Lash <erelion12@...>
Date:Sunday, January 7, 2007, 21:02
I can't say about the Catalan, but the French word is
from the accusative of Latin 'res', that is, 'rem'.
Guessing here, but perhaps Catalan is the nominative
form.

-Elliott

--- "Adam F." <hypaholic@...> wrote:

> Does anyone know the origins of two words "rien" and > "res". They are both > the words for "nothing" the first is French and the > second Catalan. I wonder > if they are cognates, but I can't find anything > about it online. This is for > a conlang project so I thought maybe someone would > know. > > Thanks, > Adam >
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