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Re: verbs = nouns?

From:Roger Mills <romilly@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 10, 2001, 4:52
Douglas Koller wrote:

>From: "H. S. Teoh" > >> True, true. But I still find the notion of adjectives in Chinese being a >> kind of "verb" rather hard to swallow. I guess I'm struggling with what
is
>> so "verb-like" about a Chinese adjective? I can't think of a good example >> that makes sense as both a verb and an adjective? > >If you're thinking of the verb as an "action word", then, yes, it doesn't >make sense; you can't "dark" something. But as a *stative* verb (i.e.:
"*be*
>dark"), it works. > >Tian1 hei1 le. It's (The sky's) gotten dark. >
>> The only >> restrictions seems to be semantic; so it excludes things like using hong2 >> (red) as a verb since you can't "red" something, although you can cause >> something to *become* red. > >Stative verbs, by definition, are not transitive. Of course you can't "red" >something, but something can "be red" and thus, with a perfective particle, >"have become red".>
FWIW, Kash handles this with derivations: nele shisu 'red sky' - descriptive/adjectival nele yashisu 'the sky is red' - stative/predicative nele yayushisu 'the sky is getting/turning red' - yu- inchoative luhuni yarucisu sunju 'his blood reddens/makes red the soil' - ruñ- causative Adjectives are verbs. Formally comparable to e.g. Erek mende yahorem 'Erek has died' (Present tense _erek yahorem_ would make sense only as a stage direction; colloq. it might be 'he is dying' but that should be better: Erek yayukorem 'E. is dying/is moribund' Erek yarungoremsa foritni 'E. extinguished his torch' - the preferred usage of the causative of this verb, though in the context of describing a battle, it could mean 'killed, wiped out'.
>> (I know, bad example 'cos this is valid in >> English. But I guess it's because in English, the concept of "to become" >> is implicitly added when "red" is used as a verb; whereas in Chinese, "to >> become" must be explicit. Chinese is perhaps more literal in such cases?) > >If you interchanged "implicit" and "explicit" in this sentence, I would >agree with you. > >Earlier: > >>Actually, I didn't mean that there is an implicit copula. Just that if you >>find verbless sentences hard to grasp, a good way to think about it is >>that there are implicit copulas. But OTOH, I unconsciously think of >>implicit copulas when I'm thinking in English and writing about Chinese. >>When I'm thinking in Chinese, I find it rather difficult to explain why >>every sentence in English must have a verb > >Though you distance yourself from it, for the sake of argument, I don't >think the implicit copula argument washes. If sentences with adjectives had >explicit copulas, they would behave differently. > >Ta1 hen3 gao1. He's tall. (no "be" verb under this theory). > >Ta1 shi4 hen3 gao1 de. Same meaning with different connotations ("be" verb >allowed)(not a great example) > >take out the copula, and you get: > >*Ta1 hen3 gao1 de. > >And isn't implicit copula relatively rare in modern Chinese anyway? Back in >the old days, you juxtaposed two nouns for an X=Y sentence (X,Y). "Shi4", >originally a demonstrative "this", increasingly got tacked onto the Y (X, >this Y) and eventually became the modern-day copula. Beyond limited >phone-speak like "Wo3 Kou1 Dao4guang1." ("This is Douglas."), I find it
hard
>to come up with copula-less or, even less so, verbless sentences in
Chinese.
> >Kou