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Re: Two different opposites (again)

From:Jonathan Knibb <j_knibb@...>
Date:Friday, May 14, 2004, 12:03
Nik Taylor wrote:
>Christophe Grandsire wrote: > > En réponse à Philippe Caquant : > > >J'ai appris l'anglais à l'école (I learned English at > > >school) > > >J'ai appris l'anglais à mon fils (I teached English to > > >my son) (or maybe I taught ? can't remember) > > > > Note, as shown in this sentence, that when using "apprendre" for "to > > teach", a recipient is *mandatory*. If you want to say "I teach >English", > > you're obliged to use "enseigner".
>Some dialects of English do exactly the same thing. You can say "I'll >learn you to speak good". This is, however, highly stigmatized (hence >my example sentence :-)). Is the same true for that usage of >_apprendre_?
I'm sure you intended to imply this anyway, Nik, but I think it's sufficiently interesting to make explicit -- not only can 'learn' be used in this way in non-standard Eng. dialects, but just as in French it requires (at least in my experience) an explicit recipient. The context that comes most readily to my mind is the ten-year-old in the playground dealing some physical blow to a 'friend', with the comment 'That'll learn yer [... not to impugn my honour, etc.]'. (My orthographic strategy follows the spirit of Nik's example. :) ) Jonathan. _________________________________________________________________ Sign-up for a FREE BT Broadband connection today!