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Re: commonness of sound changes (was: Question re historical sound changes)

From:Lars Finsen <lars.finsen@...>
Date:Wednesday, April 1, 2009, 11:01
Den 1. apr. 2009 kl. 10.13 skreiv Tristan McLeay:

> It's the same situation with English and French /b/ and /p/. For an > English /b/ and a French /p/, the aim is to begin voicing the moment > the sound is released. But the English sound has as its contrast the > English /p/, which has as its aim to begin voicing after the the lips > are released, and the French sound has as its contrast the French /b/, > which has as its aim to begin voicing before the lips are released.
What do you mean by "aim"? Is there a requirement that there should be voicing after a /p/ in English? (And is this a clue to why it is dropped before a t or an s?) LEF

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Tristan McLeay <conlang@...>