Re: Language universal?

>
>Andreas Johansson wrote:
> >
> > >
> > >Musing on a new thread here . . .
> > >
> > >A while ago, someone mentioned that prepositions do not ever govern the
> > >nominative case in languages that mark case.
> >
> > I assume genitive don't count? Otherwise, English do mark case and have
> > nominative after prepositions ...
>
><snip>
>
>I wouldn't really call the non-genitive case in English the nominative.
>I think "oblique" is the term to describe an "everything that doesn't
>have it's own case" case, such as the non-genitive in English.
>
>I'm not sure about this, though. Anyone reading this, feel free to
>correct me if I'm mistaken on any counts.
>
>--
>Robert
So in order to be a true nominative it would have to have some sort of
explicit nominative marker?

That'd put my conlang in an even weirder situation (assuming that I don't
want to break the supposed universal of no prepositions governing
nominative). In it's "present" form, the nominative/oblique singular is
identical to the stem of the noun, but that's only because the explicit
nominative marker that existed in earlier forms dissappeared due to a
perfectly regular phonologic change!

But well, I won't change anything anyways. That'd be too much honest work!

                                                             Andreas
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