From: | Andreas Johansson <and_yo@...> |
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Date: | Tuesday, February 25, 2003, 19:14 |
I asked a question in my "doubt" post, which nobody's tried to answere yet. Working on the theory that this is more due to it being buried in a long and rambling post, I'll just re-ask: How probable is it for a language that has a definite article to replace it with a form derived from a demonstrative? Are any such examples known from real-world languages? Andreas _________________________________________________________________ The new MSN 8: smart spam protection and 2 months FREE* http://join.msn.com/?page=features/junkmail
John Cowan <jcowan@...> | |
Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> | |
Aidan Grey <grey@...> | |
michael poxon <m.poxon@...> |