From: | michael poxon <m.poxon@...> |
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Date: | Wednesday, February 26, 2003, 11:48 |
Isn't this what the romance langs did? Their definites were originally Latin demonstratives, I believe; but what they had before that happened, I can't remember! Mike> > How probable is it for a language that has a definite article to replaceit> with a form derived from a demonstrative? Are any such examples known from > real-world languages? > > Andreas > > _________________________________________________________________ > The new MSN 8: smart spam protection and 2 months FREE* > http://join.msn.com/?page=features/junkmail
Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> | |
Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> |