Re: Inflecting Jesus Christ (was: Never violate a universal ...)

>
>In any case, "Christus" is a plain 2nd declension noun, but "Jesus"
>is odd; it obviously isn't 2nd declension (o-stem) but doesn't look
>like 4th declension (u-stem) either, as the dat. is definitely "Jesu"
>and not "Jesui".  Maybe the Greek inflections were imported into Latin
>(just guessing here)?

Yes, I'd decribe "Jesus" as an irregular 4th.

N Jesus, A Jesum, VGDAbl  Jesu in Latin, IIRC.

(Took us ages  to track down an actual dative in the Vulgate - it's almost
all "ad Jesum".)

Ian