Re: head-marking
From: | JS Bangs <jaspax@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, August 13, 2003, 0:19 |
Nik Taylor sikyal:
> I don't know if there are any languages where the preposition would have
> to agree with its object, but if there are, I'd suspect that they'd also
> be ergative, and that the prepositions in question are derived from
> verbs.
What about Italian and French? Yes, I know that you'll tell me that those
are just the articles phonetically mashed in with the preposition, but by
modern times this relationship is pretty opaque and can arguably be called
pure agreement.
--
Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu
http://students.washington.edu/jaspax/
http://students.washington.edu/jaspax/blog
Jesus asked them, "Who do you say that I am?"
And they answered, "You are the eschatological manifestation of the ground
of our being, the kerygma in which we find the ultimate meaning of our
interpersonal relationship."
And Jesus said, "What?"
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