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Re: A new phonemic distinction in Gzarondan

From:J. 'Mach' Wust <j_mach_wust@...>
Date:Thursday, October 14, 2004, 16:06
On Thu, 14 Oct 2004 17:14:27 +0200, Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote:

>Quoting "Adrian Morgan (aka Flesh-eating Dragon)" <dragon@...>: > >> Alternatively, I could do away with /h/ (but how many natural >> languages don't have /h/ ?) > >French, Greek and Russian come to mind; they don't have [h] at all. And then >you've got langs like Spanish, where [h] is found, but can very reasonably be >analyzed as allophones of /s/ and /x/, ridding us of an /h/ _phoneme_. >Moreover, some 'lects of Spanish lack [h] entirely.
I'd say most lack it, but some have it as allophones (of syllable-final /s/ or of /x/). But I guess the same is true of Russian; I remember a girl that told me that the Cyrillic alphabet had a letter for [h], and I assume she meant |x|. Italian also lacks it, and to my knowledge even certain dialects of English. I once heard an Italian girl speaking German, and she tried so hard to produce [h] that she ended up with [?]. In the places where there can be a [?], however, she had a [h]! So she had basically switched [h] and [?] (neither occur in Italian). gry@s: j. 'mach' wust

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Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>