Re: markjjones@HOTMAIL.COM
| From: | Steven Williams <feurieaux@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, March 6, 2005, 19:33 |
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--- "David J. Peterson" <dedalvs@...> schrieb:
> Mark Jones wrote:
>
> This seems totally counterintuitive to me,
> because...
> Steven wrote:
> <<IIRC, it used to be a voiced lateral fricative
>[K\].>>
> I've *never* heard of that latter fact (seems
> totally bizarre to me)
It surprised me, too. In at least two books, one on
the proto-Semitic sound system, and another on the
glottalic theory of PIE, they state that the likely
source of [D_g] is [K\_g] or plain [K\] (am I using
the right symbol, [K\], for a voiced lateral
fricative?).
It does seem like it would be possible, but then
again, I'm no expert on proto-Semitic.
> However, as a counterargument to this, it could be
> that the pharyngealized /D/ has moved backwards
> for phonological reasons. Specifically, if there's
> a phonologically pharyngealized /D/, and a
> phonologically non-pharyngealized /D/ which itself
> is naturally pharyngealized, confusion could result.
Indeed, [D] and [D_g] sound almost identical. I can't
tell the difference myself, if it weren't for the
effect that the emphatics have on vowels.
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