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Re: Rhoticity

From:Jesse Bangs <jaspax@...>
Date:Sunday, September 2, 2001, 18:19
> I've been wondering lately just what rhoticity is. I know certain
sounds are
> classified as rhotic, but they don't seem to have anything in common to
me,
> other than that they are often represented by <r> in Latin orthography.
In some ways, that *is* the only criterion. The other property is that all rhotic sounds sound similar to speakers of various languages. However, that acoustic property is almost impossible to define in terms of articulation, which is why rhoticity is such a slippery subject. But here's my understanding of the matter. Those that know better (read: Dirk Elzinga) may correct me.
> What *is* rhoticity?
The property of being rhotic ;-). Really, I can't answer this question without answering the others. However, in historical linguistics "rhoticity" is used to refer to any sound change that produces a rhotic sound, especially the change *s > r.
> What makes a consonant rhotic?
Generally, all trills or flaps are rhotic, and in many cases rhoticity can be reduced to trilling. However, anterior approximants (retroflex, alveolar, dental) are also considered rhotic because they share acoustic properties with the trills. In technical terms, I *think* that this acoustic value is associated with a particular frequency of the third formant, though I might be wrong.
> What characterizes a rhotic vowel?
A vowel that has simultaneous rhotic construction, or that third-formant value that I mentioned.
> Is there really a relation between rhoticity and retroflexion?
Not necessarily. Retroflexion is only one of the ways to create a rhotic sound.
> What are some known kinds of sound changes that occur with rhotics
(i.e.
> what types of sounds become rhotic, and what types of sounds come > from rhotics)?
Well, I already mentioned *s > r, which occurs in Latin and the ancient Germanic languages, as well as others, I'm sure. If the language does not have both a rhotic and a lateral, those classes of sounds may switch back and forth. In many languages, like (I'm pretty sure) Korean, a rhotic and a lateral are allophones of the same phoneme. The voiced uvular fricative is virtually identical to the uvular trill, which is a rhotic. And it's not impossible for the change *n > r to occur, a change which occurred in the history of my conlang. Jesse S. Bangs Pelíran jaspax@ juno.com "There is enough light for those that desire only to see, and enough darkness for those of a contrary disposition." --Blaise Pascal

Replies

Barry Garcia <barry_garcia@...>
Eric Christopherson <rakko@...>