Re: Spanish Question (with Expanded Politesse)
From: | Roger Mills <romilly@...> |
Date: | Monday, January 14, 2002, 22:03 |
Kou wrote:
So I ask the Spanish teacher at my school (non-native) if
>Spanish has equivalent forms; she says "no". I'm not convinced. I look it
up
>here at home and find "tutear".
Of course. What a dolt that teacher must be. Although I've noticed on the
Ideolengua list, hardly anyone uses Vd., it's all tu or occasionally
vosotros.
>
>And so, is there a Spanish word for "use the 'Vd.' form"? Is there a word
>for "use the 'vosotros' form"?
There's vosear (~vocear), but that refers to the Argentine (and others)
practice of using "vos" for 2 sing. e.g. (yo) hablo, (vos) hablás, (él)
habla. Imperative hablá. Or sé, sabés, sabe 'I/you/he know(s)'. I'm not
sure what they do for real 2 plur., or in the other tenses. Pablo Flores can
tell us......
I'm not sure, but I think I've heard "tratar de Vd." for 'to use the Vd.
form'
>How do conlangs cope?
Kash: by not having a formal/polite distinction. There used to be, but it
died out, surviving only in some little-used imperative forms. Still, if
you want to be very very polite, or obsequious, you can use _simbi, lumbi_
'sir/gentleman, madame/lady' (with a 3d pers. verb) for 'you': aka lumbi
yamelo yakuka? "Would Madame like to sit down?"
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