Re: Spanish Question (with Expanded Politesse)
From: | Pablo David Flores <pablo-flores@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, January 15, 2002, 2:26 |
Roger Mills <romilly@...> writes:
> Of course. What a dolt that teacher must be. Although I've noticed on the
> Ideolengua list, hardly anyone uses Vd., it's all tu or occasionally
> vosotros.
Are you still on Ideolengua then? How's it going?
> >And so, is there a Spanish word for "use the 'Vd.' form"? Is there a word
> >for "use the 'vosotros' form"?
No, there isn't. Here in Latin America it would be "hablar como
en España". :)
> There's vosear (~vocear), but that refers to the Argentine (and others)
> practice of using "vos" for 2 sing. e.g. (yo) hablo, (vos) hablás, (él)
> habla. Imperative hablá. Or sé, sabés, sabe 'I/you/he know(s)'. I'm not
> sure what they do for real 2 plur., or in the other tenses. Pablo Flores can
> tell us......
We use 'ustedes' (neutral as to formality) with the verb in the
*third* person plural, in whatever tense.
The singular forms are most irregular in the present tense; they don't
diverge much from the verb forms using 'tú' in the other tenses.
'Vos hablaste', 'vos hablabas', 'vos sabías', 'vos supiste' (that's
an irregular verb for you, 'saber'!).
--Pablo Flores
http://www.geocities.com/finis_stellae/ng/index.html
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