Re: Aspects vs. Tenses in an All-Out Grudge Match!

FFlores wrote:
>
> Josh Roth <Fuscian@...> wrote:
> >
> > I wonder why in French, some verbs use one auxiliary (avoir-to have) and
> > others (around 20 intransitives) use another (jtre-to be). Actually, didn't
> > English do this too at one point?
>
> I think the jtre-verbs are all experiencial <sp?> verbs, or
> maybe verbs that carry some degree of 'middle voice'... In Spanish
> those verbs are all conjugated with _haber_ 'to have' but they
> usually take a pseudo-reflexive pronoun.
>
> French: _je suis tombi_ 'I am fallen'
> Spanish: _yo me cam_ 'I fell *myself' or _yo me he camdo_ 'I have fallen',
> while just stative is _yo estoy camdo_ 'I am fallen'.
>
> I don't really remember more jtre-verbs from French... Is it
> _avoir venu_ or _jtre venu_?
>
> --Pablo Flores
        It is "etre venu". All verbs of movements take the "etre" auxiliary.
And all reflexive verbs take it also. It is kind of regular in fact
(except with some verbs like "apparaitre" which can have both
auxiliaries).

--
        Christophe Grandsire

        Philips Research Laboratories --  Building WB 145
        Prof. Holstlaan 4
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        Phone:  +31-40-27-45006
        E-mail: grandsir@natlab.research.philips.com