Re: OT: Celestial maps
| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, January 12, 2008, 18:23 |
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On Jan 12, 2008 10:50 AM, Eugene Oh <un.doing@...> wrote:
> Is there a difference? I thought it'd be the same thing since
> technically 0 would be midnight of Jan 1, 1 CE.
Year 0 CE would logically be the year before year 1 CE. That happens
to be the same year labeled by historians 1 BCE. So there's a 1-year
magnitude discrepancy beyond the sign difference: 0 CE = 1 BCE, -1 CE
= 2 BCE, etc.
--
Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
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