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Re: USAGE: Circumfixes

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Tuesday, May 11, 2004, 5:14
On Monday, May 10, 2004, at 07:00 PM, Mark J. Reed wrote:

> On Sat, May 08, 2004 at 09:54:57PM -0500, Mark P. Line wrote: >> 1. Circumfixes are affixes. The examples you give for French involve >> clitics and free morphemes. You can analyze them as discontinuous >> constituents (of which circumfixes are one type), but calling them >> circumfixes would be quite unusual. > > Okay, if the alleged affix can appear by itself, then it's really > a free morpheme; but what is the difference between an affix and a > clitic?
According to Trask a clitic is: "An item which exhibits behaviour intermediate between that of a word and that of an affix. Typically, a clitic has the phonological form of a separate word, but cannot be stresses and is obliged to occupy a particular position in the sentence in which it is phonologically bound to an adjoining word, its host." Whether unstressed /n(@)/ has the phonological form of a separate word is debatable. It's usually considered an incltic, but this probably has something to do with the written language. I can understand that some analyzes of _spoken_ French may well judge it to be a prefix. However, the other part of the negative construct - pas, point, plus, jamais, personne, rien etc. may, and do, occur a free morphemes in other contexts. The French (and spoken Welsh) negative constructs may be, as Mark says, considered as discontinuous constituents, but they are not circumfixes in the normal sense of the word. ========================================================================= On Monday, May 10, 2004, at 12:17 PM, Richard Wordingham wrote:
> --- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Tamas Racsko <tracsko@F...> wrote:
[snip]
>> I considered Greek augmentation/reduplication before my previous >> posting but I refused in the end.
[snip]
>> Thus it's not a circumfix because its elements are connected to >> different functions: reduplication for the perfect, K for the mood >> and -a for the tense.
Yes, indeed - the augments, redupilcation, and other tense/voice/mood markers do have different functions. There's no evidence of circumfixes as properly understood.
> You mean 'voice', not 'mood'. -a- probably marks 'unmarked' past > (i.e. as opposed to imperfect or pluperfect) as it occurs both in the > present perfect and in the aorist.
I doubt that it was as systematic as that. There appears to have been a good deal of remodelling and analogy at work in the forms of Greek verbs. the -a- seems to have spread to other personal endings on the analogy of the 1st person -a <-- /m=/. The 3rd singular was -e and has remained so till the present.
> (In Modern Greek, it now occurs > in the imperfect!).
There was already confusion in ancient Greek in some verbs between second/ strong aorist & first/weak aorist, e.g. the strong aorist: e:lthon, e:ltes, e:lte etc (I came, thou camest....) is not uncommonly found with 2nd persons e:ltas (sing.) ~ e:ltate (plural). The process has continued till we have just one set of past tense endings which are added to both the infective stem & the perfect stems, giving the two synthetic past tenses of modern greek.
> How plausible a conlang would Classical Greek be?
Not at all plausible - the ancient language has too many variants and dialects for any one to think it was anything other than a natlang. It's not to the development of the Koine that we get anything approaching uniformity. The artificially Atticizing written language that developed in late Koine & became the official standard in the Byzantine period could claim conlang status, I guess, as could the Katharevousa of 19th & 20th cent intellectuals. ========================================================================= ====== On Monday, May 10, 2004, at 04:52 PM, Douglas Koller wrote: [snip]
> where the suffix isn't needed. Personally, I'm disinclined to see > Western Eurolangs as circumfix-friendly, at least according to my > understanding of "circumfix".
Greek isn't perhaps normally classed in the western part of Euroland, but Greek is certainly a Eurolang. I'm disinclined to see Eurolangs generally as circumflex-friendly, according to my understanding of "circumflex". Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com (home) raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work) =============================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760 Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com (home) raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work) =============================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760 Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com (home) raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work) =============================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760

Replies

Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Richard Wordingham <richard.wordingham@...>