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Re: My Grammatical Sketch (again!)

From:Patrick Dunn <tb0pwd1@...>
Date:Wednesday, October 13, 1999, 0:33
On Tue, 12 Oct 1999, Patrick Dunn wrote:

> On Tue, 12 Oct 1999, Austin Taylor wrote: > > > There is am imperfect tense in Latin that corresponds to the > > Katabala imperfect tense; it denotes an incompleted action > > began in the past. I guess you could call it past > > progressive... > > > > Also, I scrapped present and past affirmative, so just > > pretend those particles aren't there. > > > > Yes, I forgot to add an imperative, but all my other moods > > stand as they are. The imperative mood particle shall be {hsara}. > > This isn't meant as a criticism, just a question that also applies to my > language (Hatasoe). I have a trouble with imperatives; aren't they > usually, in natural languages, very unmarked? So, in Spanish, they're > just the root and the "theme vowel", in OE they're just the root without > the infinitive marker, and in Latin, again, they're just the root and the > "theme vowel" (I don't know if that's an actual term or not; I once saw it > in a book that talked about Latin, and picked it up).
I never asked my question! (Blame it on Northrup Frye's Anatomy of Criticism -- my brain is boiled in its own juices) My question was, are there any natlangs that *do* mark their imperatives as much as or more than their other moods?