Re: My Grammatical Sketch (again!)

On Tue, 12 Oct 1999, Patrick Dunn wrote:

> On Tue, 12 Oct 1999, Austin Taylor wrote:
>
> > There is am imperfect tense in Latin that corresponds to the
> > Katabala imperfect tense; it denotes an incompleted action
> > began in the past.  I guess you could call it past
> > progressive...
> >
> > Also, I scrapped present and past affirmative, so just
> > pretend those particles aren't there.
> >
> > Yes, I forgot to add an imperative, but all my other moods
> > stand as they are.  The imperative mood particle shall be {hsara}.
>
> This isn't meant as a criticism, just a question that also applies to my
> language (Hatasoe).  I have a trouble with imperatives; aren't they
> usually, in natural languages, very unmarked?  So, in Spanish, they're
> just the root and the "theme vowel", in OE they're just the root without
> the infinitive marker, and in Latin, again, they're just the root and the
> "theme vowel" (I don't know if that's an actual term or not; I once saw it
> in a book that talked about Latin, and picked it up).
I never asked my question!  (Blame it on Northrup Frye's Anatomy of
Criticism -- my brain is boiled in its own juices)  My question was, are
there any natlangs that *do* mark their imperatives as much as or more
than their other moods?