Re: Allophone Problem
|From:||Jörg Rhiemeier <joerg_rhiemeier@...>|
|Date:||Saturday, June 9, 2007, 11:40|
On Sat, 9 Jun 2007 01:40:33 +0200, Henrik Theiling wrote:
> Jörg Rhiemeier wrote:
> > [...]
> > It is - at least in my idiolect - like this:
> > Voiceless stops are not only voiceless, they are also aspirated (except
> > in clusters). In word-final position, voiced stops are devoiced, but
> > unlike voiceless stops they are not aspirated. So you have
> I find this surprising!
> Actually, I doubt there is, in the vast majority of German dialects,
> any difference of final -/d/ and final -/t/. My dialect for one, I am
> sure, has a perfect merger. If I don't know a spelling, it is
> impossible for me to judge how to write that word without checking
> related forms with a following vowel.
> Given that spelling mistakes are made often and that children at
> school are taught to check derived forms suggests that usually, people
> have a full merger. I think I have never heard or read about a
> difference in German between final devoiced and final voiceless
> There are many dialects out there so you never know whether *some*
> retain a difference, but I am especially surprised because I know that
> you come from quite close to my place of growing up.
> Are there any papers supporting you about this difference in German?
> Analyses of recordings or something like that?
No. It was simply my own observation about the way I speak. I have to
admit, though, that the difference isn't all that clear in my casual
speech. I repeatedly said "Rat" and "Rad" and tried to spot a difference,
and I *think* I found the difference I posted about. It may well be an
artifact of over-careful pronunciation, and after all, it is *just my
idiolect*. Your mileage may vary.
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