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Re: OT: German reputation

From:J. 'Mach' Wust <j_mach_wust@...>
Date:Tuesday, December 14, 2004, 16:04
On Tue, 14 Dec 2004 10:14:30 -0500, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote:

>On Tue, Dec 14, 2004 at 08:32:43AM -0500, J. 'Mach' Wust wrote: >> /'di.os/ is not a Spanish word. > >Huh? Yes it is. That is how you pronounce the Spanish word >for God: |díos| = /'di.os/.
Have a look at at the diccionary of the Real Academia Española: http://buscon.rae.es/diccionario/drae.htm . You might be mixing it up with Italian, which indeed stressed the word /'di.o/ on the first syllable, and where this word is pronounced trisyllabic: [a'd:i:.(j)o].
>> In very slow speech, you can of course seperate the word into two >> syllable, just as you could do with English words like /mjuz/: >> [mi.'(j)u:z]. > >No, it's not the same. Pronouncing "muse" as you indicate is very odd >and marked; whereas I regularly hear native Spanish speakers say /a.di'os/ >as 3 syllables, even though the rules for Spanish diphthongs we were >taught in school would make it /a'djos/ (or maybe /ad'jos/). > >On the other hand, I suppose it could just be my ear inserting a >syllable because [Dj] is an odd cluster for me - even when I say >/a'djos/ it sounds trisyllabic to me.
There's not much difference between a [j] and a [i], especially not before vowels, so the question whether it's considered a syllable on its own is rather based on non-phonetic arguments (as are other phonological/phonemical questions). kry@s: j. 'mach' wust

Replies

Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Roger Mills <rfmilly@...>