Re: [Re: [Re: [Re: [Re: Roll Your Own IE language]]]]
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, April 12, 1999, 20:04 |
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Bryan Maloney wrote:
> If the vowels weren't in the roots, then weren't they pronounced without
> vowels, or were the roots never actually pronounced (simply "implied")
> but always given some form of alteration (I hesitate to say "inflection",
> specifically) when actually used?
This reminds me of Semitic roots.
--
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