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Re: OT (?) Balkan Sprachbund (was: Relative clauses)

From:Eugene Oh <un.doing@...>
Date:Thursday, June 29, 2006, 23:52
There was indeed a period in which Greece was severely depopulated,
namely the Dark Ages. Whence did Toynbee infer the immigration of
Slavs? It sounds like a very intriguing topic, much like the ethnic
history of the Japanese.


On 6/29/06, Roger Mills <rfmilly@...> wrote:
> Eldin Raigmore wrote: > > > Naturally. Modern Greek is in that [Balkan] Sprachbund, but before the > > fall of the > > Roman Empire that Sprachbund wouldn't have existed, at least not in its > > present form. > > > An interesting question: What is really known about the ethnic makeup of the > Balkans prior to the Slavic influx-- aside from a few vague names > "Dalmatians, Illyrians, Dacians, Macedonians" et al.-- and, I gather, some > inscriptions difficult to interpret. (The Romanians and the occasional > Albanian on Cybalist get very excited about these questions :-)) ). Were > even the Albanians indigenous to the area, or later arrivals (late Roman > period, or even later, Byzantine?). > > Apparently the pre-Slavic population of Bulgaria was Turkic (Central Asian?) > in origin (leftovers from the Hunnic invasions? Who was there before that?). > One statement in Toynbee really surprised me (assuming he's correct)-- viz., > that the present-day population of Greece is something like 50% Slavic in > origin. (There was, according to him, a period when Greece or at least the > Peloponnese, became severely depopulated; Slavic immigrants moved in.) I > wonder if modern DNA analysis bears this out in any way? > > In any case the Slavic movement into the entire area must have been massive, > no? >