>This in turn meant that the children of slaves learnt the language
>of their masters more or less as the master's children did,
>which explains why AAVE is in most respects identical to dialects
>of rural Southern American English. Gullah is divergent, in this
What is the currently prevaling hypothesis/corellary for this?
>I would not discount Bickerton's bioprogram which you describe
>above entirely; there is always a role for markedness in any
>language change. However, he and sociolinguists like him have
>IMO vastly overstated the role of markedness.
Not at all unusual, thought, in the field of linguistics.
>Two books I suggest for an alternative view of Pidgins and Creoles:
>"Explaining Language Change" by William Croft, and "The Ecology of
>Language Evolution" by Salikoko Muwfwene.
Thanks. I'll try to locate copies of these.
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