Re: Greenberg's Word Order Universals
From: | Robert Hailman <robert@...> |
Date: | Thursday, September 14, 2000, 20:58 |
John Cowan wrote:
>
> Robert Hailman wrote:
>
> > My hunch is to assume it means that the unmarked form of a noun is never
> > the plural [...]
>
> It also means that there is always some way to mark the plural, if only
> in the pronouns (as in Mandarin). Some languages have a mark for the
> singular, some don't. Languages with dual (exactly two) and trial
> (exactly three) numbers almost always have marks for them.
>
> ...where "mark" means suffix, or prefix, or change of vowels, or suppletion,
> or what have you.
Thanks for clearing that up! It's appreciated. Now it all makes sense.
--
Robert