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Re: Spanish pronouns

From:Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...>
Date:Friday, November 17, 2000, 20:03
On Wed, 15 Nov 2000 18:12:42 -0800, jesse stephen bangs
<jaspax@...> wrote:

>No, "se" was a pronoun in Latin, too. It was the reflexive accusative >pronoun "his/herself". In most of the Romance langs it replaced >the dative pronoun when there was another accusative pronoun present, as >well as retaining reflexive and sometimes passive usage.
I read somewhere that in Old Spanish there was a contracted form _jelo_ or _xelo_, corresponding to Italian _glielo_. Like in many other cases, Old Spanish had <j> for Vulgar Latin palatalized /l_j/. (Note that Spanish <ll> mostly descends from V. L. clusters, and wasn't a palatalized sound at first). This <jelo> got to be pronounced /Selo/ at some stage, and then was mixed with se + lo /selo/ (instead of developing regularly to some /xelo/). Dunno about Rumanian. Basilius