Re: Spanish pronouns
From: | Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...> |
Date: | Friday, November 17, 2000, 20:03 |
On Wed, 15 Nov 2000 18:12:42 -0800, jesse stephen bangs
<jaspax@...> wrote:
>No, "se" was a pronoun in Latin, too. It was the reflexive accusative
>pronoun "his/herself". In most of the Romance langs it replaced
>the dative pronoun when there was another accusative pronoun present, as
>well as retaining reflexive and sometimes passive usage.
I read somewhere that in Old Spanish there was a contracted form _jelo_
or _xelo_, corresponding to Italian _glielo_. Like in many other cases,
Old Spanish had <j> for Vulgar Latin palatalized /l_j/. (Note that Spanish
<ll> mostly descends from V. L. clusters, and wasn't a palatalized sound
at first).
This <jelo> got to be pronounced /Selo/ at some stage, and then was mixed
with se + lo /selo/ (instead of developing regularly to some /xelo/).
Dunno about Rumanian.
Basilius