Re: laterals (was: Pharingials, /l/ vs. /r/ in Southeast Asia)

Taking the several reply approach:

[dZan 'kaU@n r\o_Ut]:
> AFAIK with /sj/ all dialects have either dropped the palatalization (as
> with "Sue" /su/) or have gone all the way to /S/, as with "issue" /ISu/).
> Nobody says /sju/ or /Isju/ any more.
No one here says /'ISu/ either, as far as I know.  It's /'ISju/, in between.
So I suppose the palatization remains, since /Sj/ is acceptable but */sj/
is not.  Either way, though, I doubt they are syllabified together:
I realize it more as ish-yoo than i-shyoo.

['&d@m 'wAkr\= r\o_Ut]:
>Well, my mother (a native Texan) says /tjuzdi/ and
>/tjun/ in alternation with /tusdi/ and sometimes
>/tun/.  Her mother always had the palatal
>pronunciation.  I don't.  So my grandmother
>consistantly had /tj/, /dj/ and /nj/ but not /lj/.  My
>mother has the same three as my grandmother but in
>free variation with the unpalatalized forms.  My
>siblings and I only have the unpalatalized forms which
>is like my father.
This reminds me of how I was always unsettled by
Moody Blues' ['tSuzdej '&ftr\=nunz].  Since no one
near me ever palatized that T, their pronunciation
of the word didn't sound right to me NE American
ears.

['tSr\Ebr\= dZUN r\o_Ut]:  <-- I hope I didn't mangle that.  How do you
pronounce it?

>Don't some British people say [&ljumInI@m] for 'aluminum'? And what about
'million', /mIlj@n/?
I think the /j/ in million is just a reduction of the /i/ in rapid speech,
rather than a palatized consonant
in its own right.

Jake