Re: Redundant pronouns (was: "Tagalog,it's got a Trigger System," She Said)
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Saturday, February 20, 1999, 5:26 |
Pablo Flores wrote:
> BTW, why, could it be, is there a difference between animate and inanimate
> objects in Spanish?
It's fairly common, cross-linguistically, for animate nouns to be marked
for more catagories than inanimates. Compare English he/him, she/her,
it, or who/whom vs. what. Also, consider that in (AFAIK) every IE
language with a neuter gender, the neuter makes no distinction between
nominative and accusative (cf. Latin puer/puerum vs. bellum). One of
the main reasons is probably because inanimate nouns are rarely the
subject of a transitive verb, so there's little need to specially mark
the accusative.
--
"It's bad manners to talk about ropes in the house of a man whose father
was hanged." - Irish proverb
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