"A" Personal in Spanish (was - Redundant pronouns, Tagalog, etc.)
| From: | Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, February 16, 1999, 4:16 |
|---|
On Mon, 15 Feb 1999 22:50:28 -0300 Pablo Flores <fflores@...>
writes:
>BTW, why, could it be, is there a difference between animate and
>inanimate
>objects in Spanish? Does anybody know? The "a" for animate direct
>objects
>is a bother when there's also a dative object (though word order and
>intonation differentiate them).
>
>--Pablo Flores
>
I don't know that much about Arabic, but could the _a personal_ in
Spanish be some kind of incomplete influence from Semitic languages?
Hebrew has a direct object marker, _et_, so i'd assume Arabic has one
too...and i don't see why the Arabic influence on Spanish would be
limited to just all those vocabulary words which begin with "al" :)
-Stephen (Steg)
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