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Re: Copula

From:H. S. Teoh <hsteoh@...>
Date:Tuesday, March 20, 2007, 4:34
On Sun, Mar 18, 2007 at 10:29:19PM -0400, Jason Monti wrote:
> Hi everyone! > > I have another question that will probably leave the experts rolling > their eyes at my "n00bidity", but it's been nagging me. > > Why is it that the copula takes two nominatives, rather than a > nominative and an accusative, even though it seems to me at least to > be a bivalent verb?
[...] Not all languages do this (and English itself is diverging from this: e.g., it's much more common to hear "It's him!" rather than "It's he!"). FWIW, in Russian, the verb to-be (быть) in some cases require the instrumental case rather than the nominative. ObConlang: Tatari Faran has no copula, period. It gets by with simple juxtaposition. In a simple statement of equivalence, e.g., "That is a rabbit", the equivalent of the English subject is in the conveyant case, and the predicate is in the absolutive case: mei sei tiki. (this CVY.FEM) rabbit This is a rabbit. tara' sa bata'. (3sp CVY.MASC) chief He is the chief (or, a chief). (The subject NP has been parenthesized in the interlinear to make the syntactic structure clearer.) Note, though, that TF's case system is very, very different from IE-like case systems, so this may not be a fair comparison. T -- There is no gravity. The earth sucks.


David J. Peterson <dedalvs@...>