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Re: An arabo-romance conlang?

From:Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...>
Date:Friday, February 2, 2001, 17:17
On Thu, 1 Feb 2001 15:50:45 -0600, Eric Christopherson <raccoon@...>
wrote:

>> >> (no less than) two additional long vowels were still >> >> distinct from the original long ones: [O:] < awa and [E:] < aja. >> > >> >Are those phonemic in modern Arabic? I thought that *awa and *aya both >> ended >> >up simply as /a:/. >> >> Correct - for open syllables; in closed ones they get shortened and >> narrowed to [i], [u] (cf. the paradigm of 'empty' verbs like k(w)n 'to
be').
> >Ok, but the gist of my question was whether [O:] and [E:] from *awa and
*aja
>are still separate in Arabic. I was under the impression that although
there
>are allophones such as those from /a:/, they're conditioned by factors
other
>than morphology.
Yes.
>> >Lateral release? Where did that come from, a local dialect of Arabic? >> >(Proto-Semitic supposedly had tl' and hl which correspond to Arabic >> emphatic >> >d and Hebrew sin.) >> >> Spanish words like alcalde < al-kad.ij- seem to evidence the lateral >> quality of [d.] in the Andalusian dialect (which appears very archaic >> in some other respects, too - cf. the treatment of the article before >> 'solar' consonants in Gibr-al-tar, Al-taire, etc.). > >So these were stops with lateral release, not lateral affricates?
Oops... I'm afraid I used the two terms as synonyms (or rather, understood the latter as a subset of the former). Am I wrong here? I think, however, that nobody can determine such details for a reconstructed system. It seems that extant Semitic langs preserve only lateral fricatives. Basilius