Re: CONLANG Digest (#2001-97)

In a message dated 4/6/01 10:30:56 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes:

<< That's because Spanish <ch> isn't /tS/ as it is in English.  It's more
palatal, and doesn't have the /t/ in it at all--English /S/ really is the
closest thing to Spanish /cC/. >>

I don't think so.  I don't think so at all.  At most, you can say that the 
English [tS] has a longer delay before the release, slightly.  But they're 
definitely the same sound, where I'm from.

<<My [puertorriqueño] dad has the opposite problem, he usually has <ch> for
English <sh> (although I'm not sure at the moment which <ch> it is he has).>>

This is pretty standard.  Both occurring at the same time are actually what 
I've always encountered.

-David