Re: CONLANG Digest (#2001-97)
|From:||David Peterson <digitalscream@...>|
|Date:||Saturday, April 7, 2001, 7:00|
In a message dated 4/6/01 10:30:56 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes:
<< That's because Spanish <ch> isn't /tS/ as it is in English. It's more
palatal, and doesn't have the /t/ in it at all--English /S/ really is the
closest thing to Spanish /cC/. >>
I don't think so. I don't think so at all. At most, you can say that the
English [tS] has a longer delay before the release, slightly. But they're
definitely the same sound, where I'm from.
<<My [puertorriqueño] dad has the opposite problem, he usually has <ch> for
English <sh> (although I'm not sure at the moment which <ch> it is he has).>>
This is pretty standard. Both occurring at the same time are actually what
I've always encountered.