Re: USAGE: German 'be' (was: Re: Person distinctions in languages?{
| From: | Tristan McLeay <conlang@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, February 4, 2005, 10:44 |
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On 4 Feb 2005, at 9.07 pm, Philip Newton wrote:
> On Fri, 4 Feb 2005 20:47:38 +1100, Tristan McLeay
> <conlang@...> wrote:
>>
>> _warst_ might be a generalisation, or it could be the natural
>> evolution.
>
> Natural form, I suppose, given that the 2sg ending is -st.
True, but IIRC the English 2nd p. sing. past indic. of 'to be' was
_wast_, which doesn't have an r.
--
Tristan.
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