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Re: Where does inflection change to agglutination?

From:Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
Date:Saturday, December 28, 2002, 8:58
Quoting Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>:

> En réponse à Roberto Suarez Soto <ask4it@...>: > > > On Dec/26/2002, Danny Wier wrote: > > > > > Well you're on the right track. Remember that Proto-Indo-European > > became > > > inflected after various alternations of an originally agglutinative > > form. > > > > I didn't know that. Curious :-) > > > > Why? Language evolution is quite logically cyclic.
I think the term "cyclic" is too strong a word, since languages can remain in a particular "phase" of the "cycle" for many centuries or even millennia. "Cycle" in English thus suggests a regularity which is not appropriate for language change. But what you say about certain structural features favoring certain types of structural change is true enough. ========================================================================= Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally, Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of 1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter. Chicago, IL 60637