Re: Where does inflection change to agglutination?
From: | Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> |
Date: | Friday, December 27, 2002, 2:10 |
Roberto Suarez Soto wrote:
> So, unless in the 1s person of the Indicative, there are
> suffixes that are the same for every verbal form, and that carry the
> person and number meaning. And there's also a suffix for each verbal
> term. Isn't this agglutination, with only some cases of inflection, or
> am I missing something?
Well, you also have:
Comí = Com + i + (nothing)
Comiste = Com + i + ste
Comió = Com + i + ó
Comimos = Com + i +mos
Comisteis = Com + i + steis
Comieron = Com + i + eron
Which, except in first person plural, has none of the same endings.
Of course, the Spanish system *is* derived ultimately from a root +
ending + personal suffix system, but sound changes have largely obscured
it.
--
"There's no such thing as 'cool'. Everyone's just a big dork or nerd,
you just have to find people who are dorky the same way you are." -
overheard
ICQ: 18656696
AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42