Re: Where does inflection change to agglutination?
|From:||Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>|
|Date:||Friday, December 27, 2002, 2:10|
Roberto Suarez Soto wrote:
> So, unless in the 1s person of the Indicative, there are
> suffixes that are the same for every verbal form, and that carry the
> person and number meaning. And there's also a suffix for each verbal
> term. Isn't this agglutination, with only some cases of inflection, or
> am I missing something?
Well, you also have:
Comí = Com + i + (nothing)
Comiste = Com + i + ste
Comió = Com + i + ó
Comimos = Com + i +mos
Comisteis = Com + i + steis
Comieron = Com + i + eron
Which, except in first person plural, has none of the same endings.
Of course, the Spanish system *is* derived ultimately from a root +
ending + personal suffix system, but sound changes have largely obscured
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