Re: Interesting way for verbs (IMHO)
From: | Barry Garcia <barry_garcia@...> |
Date: | Saturday, November 27, 1999, 1:49 |
grandsir@natlab.research.philips.com writes:
>What is the status and
>the meaning of the linker nu/ng by the way?
>
> An interesting parallel would be to compare it with the way you
>mark
>possession in Saalangal. How do you construct sentences like "I have
>..." for possession?
One thing I forgot to mention about d=F3lat is that it also can mean "the=
re
is". More about the implications of that in the next paragraph.
The meaning of the linker is it sets two words in a "relationship". It's
most often used between adjectives and nouns where the linker MUST be use=
d
to show the two word's relationship. In the case of the perfect tenses, i=
t
sets d=F3lat and the verb into one tense. Without the linker, the meaning=
of
d=F3lat becomes "there is". So the linker is necessary in order to creat=
e
the perfect tenses.
The linker between the verb and d=F3lat is different from how posession i=
s
usually marked in Saalangal. Usually, posession is accomplished by puttin=
g
the posessed word after 'd=F3lat', and after that, the pronoun or
persons/thing's name is placed:
d=F3lat + noun + thing/person that poseses noun.
In that way, the linker is not used.
>And you can explain it saying for instance that, as a perfect action is
>completed, its result is considered owned by the subject, hence the use
>of the word for "possession" (it's the way one usually explains the use
>of the auxiliary to have to make perfect tenses).
Christophe, I really like this explanation you gave. You put it into word=
s
better than I could!
Anyway, I finally found a way to have tenses along with the focuses.=20
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'The beginning calls for courage; the end demands care'