Re: Medio-passive (was: A Survey)
| From: | Costentin Cornomorus <elemtilas@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, October 7, 2003, 1:30 |
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--- Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> wrote:
> >> Passive forms in all IE languages are
> >> secondary developments.
> >
> > Hmm... now I have some more questions!
> >
> > What causes a language's speakers to develop
> > a distinction between middle and passive?
> >
> > Conversely, what causes a language's speakers
> > to lose a distinction between the two?
>
>
> Good questions - I only wish I knew the answers
> :)
I suppose there could have been a cultural
impetus for the distinction. If reciprocity and
personal interaction is culturally vital, it may
well be dreadfully important to know who did what
for whom or if he did it for himself.
Whoever said the distinction was lost? Just
because the modern languages have almost entirely
lost a distinct morphology doesn't mean the
distinction isn't there.
Padraic.
=====
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