Re: Consonant diacritics (was: Optimum number of symbols)
| From: | Josh Roth <fuscian@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, May 22, 2002, 5:21 |
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...delurking...
In a message dated 5/22/02 12:51:38 AM, dnsulani@ZAHAV.NET.IL writes:
>From a non-Latin-orthography point of view,
>Hebrew also uses dots --- both over and inside
>of letters.
> Over: one dot over the "shin/sin" (three pronged letter);
>if it's over the letter on the right, it is pronounced (in Israeli
>Hebrew) [S], if on the left, it's [s].
I thought this holds for all versions of Hebrew - where is it different? Or
are you thinking of the possible ancient lateral fricative pronunciation?
Josh Roth
http://members.aol.com/fuscian/eloshtan.html
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