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Re: gl > gr attested in Romance?

From:Benct Philip Jonsson <melroch@...>
Date:Saturday, February 24, 2007, 11:54
> Subject: > Re: gl > gr attested in Romance? > From:R A Brown > Reply-To:Constructed Languages List > Date:Fri, 23 Feb 2007 19:56:06 +0000 > Content-Type:text/plain > > Henrik Theiling wrote: > > Hi! > > > > Is the sound shift /gl/ > /gr/ and/or /kl/ > /kr/ attested in Romance? > > > > Or at least, would you think it's feasible like the /bl/ > /br/ in > > pt. 'branco' < BLANCU(M)? > > Not that I know of, but IMO it is at least as feasible as Port. > 'branco'. I think it's just an historical accident that Port. (AFAIK) > doesn't have any examples of gl --> gr - there aren't many Latin words > beginning gl- and Port. & Spanish didn't adopt VL *glacia for 'ice'. > > As for /kl/ of course on the Iberian peninsular this developed to /L/
Which makes one wonder if /gl/ wouldn't have done so to.
> > I am thinking about 'grorie' < GLORIA(M) in a new toy romlang I > > started yesterday. > > Wouldn't the tendency to dissimilate r....r sequences counteract that? cf. > Latin 'arbore(m) "tree" --> Span. árbol, Italian albero > > Of course one could have 'grolie' :)
Exactly what I thought too.
> > > Also, what about /Nn/ > /Ngr/ like /mn/ > /mbr/ (sp. 'nombre' < NOM(I)NE(M))? > > Sort of like Spanish _sangre_ <-- 'sang(ui)ne(m) ? > > > > Tere, I'm thinking of 'ringre' < RE:GNU(M). > > Um - but the Spanish shift of /mn/ --> /mbr/ and /Ngn/ --> /Ngr/ is post > VL and .... > ========================================= > Alex Fink wrote: > > On Fri, 23 Feb 2007 15:31:19 +0100, Benct Philip Jonsson > > > wrote: > [snip] > >>The only snag is that [Nn] for _gn_ is AFAIK unattested in > >>Romance, which IIANM has /J/ or /nn/ > /n/, in all the > >>relevand words, e.g. Old French _renne_. > > Yes, in western VL a velar before a dental shifted to a palatal, so in > north Italy, Gaul & the Iberian peninsular we find [kt] --> [ct] --> > [Ct], at which point [C] gains voicing from the preceding vowel with > which it then forms a diphthong.
Yes there was a general rule [velar] > [palatal] / __ [dental] ? But if the /k/ always became a fricative [C] in this context, how do you explain NOCTE > _noche_ /'notSe/ in Castilian? I have been assuming something like /kt/ > [ct] > [cc] > /tS/, but it seems you would rather have metathesis then: /kt/ > [Ct] > [tC] > /tS/ ? If so I'd expect /St/ as the result at least somewhere!
> > So /Nn/ --> /Jn/ which then generally became through assimilation /JJ/, > in Gaul and Italy > agnellu(m) "lamb" --> Fr. agneau /aJo/, It. agnello /aJJello/ > regnu(m) ---> Old French regne, It. regno (Mod. Fr. has _royaume_ from a > different origin. > > But Span. & Port. _reino_ presumably is from /Jn/ --> /jn/
I've thought this was gn > J\n > J\J > JJ > J or gn > J\n > jn but your version clearly requires fewer steps to get from Nn > J
> >But wait, Rumanian > >>has LIGNU > _lemn_, and I guess all of /J/, /n(n)/, /mn/ may > >>be derivable from [Nn] if one wants to. > > Yep - just as _octo_ --> opt and nocte --> noapte > > Velar + dental --> labial + dental in Eastern Romance > > > > > I thought that Latin > was generally understood to be [Nn], and > Latin's > > Precisely!! That's why Henrik was asking if it was realistic for this > [Nn] to become [Ngr] is a derivative language. > > > Or are you suggesting this was a CL pronunciation that didn't survive > into VL? > > Well it didn't, did it? See above.
It was I who did. I was evidently a little befuddled, but I'm still worried by kt > tS in Castilian. -- / BP

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Isaac Penzev <isaacp@...>