Re: A phonology

In a message dated 7/25/2003 6:55:37 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
romilly@EGL.NET writes:


>Probably because it always _is_ a coda. How many Engl. words have medial /N/
>that is NOT followed by a morpheme boundary??  Langour, that I can think of,
>and it probably has one, historically. (Someone will prove me wrong, of
>course.)

Possible examples that come to mind are:

hangar
dinghy
Klingon

All are debatable in one way or another.  One might claim that the /N/s are
ambisyllabic; some people probably have /Ng/ rather than /N/; some people may
actually have a /h/ in "dinghy";  one could perhaps claim that the "-ar", "-y",
and "-on" are suffixes & therefore there really is a morpheme boundary (in
particular, "hangar" is sometimes misspelled "hanger," suggesting it's been
reanalyzed as derived from "hang"); and "Klingon" isn't what you'd call a normal
English word.

But let's not have YAEPT on how we pronounce these words :-)

Doug