Re: measuring systems (was: Selenites)
| From: | Orjan Johansen <oerjan@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, September 29, 1998, 22:29 |
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On Tue, 29 Sep 1998, Pablo Flores wrote:
> May a number be irrational in one base and rational in
> another one?
No. The fraction of integers definition doesn't mention bases at all,
really, and is the, um, basic one. The repeating decimal version can the=
n
be proved to give the same, for any base.
Greetings,
=D8rjan.
--=20
'What Einstein called "the happiest thought of my life" was his
realization that gravity and acceleration are both made of orange
Jello.' - from a non-crackpot sci.physics.relativity posting