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Re: tolkien?

From:Camilla Drefvenborg <elmindreda@...>
Date:Sunday, December 14, 2003, 14:18
Alex Fink wrote:
> Phonosemantics suggests that 'sound symbolism' occurs in natlangs: > this is the idea that to some extent individual phonemes contribute to > the meaning of morphemes, which sounds just like what you're > describing. For more information, Wikipedia's article on > phonosemantics is at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phonosemantics .
very interesting! thank you! now I feel a lot better about it.
> You could explain a pattern like this in other ways as well. For > instance, > if these associations primarily involve nouns, you could say that an > ancestor of your conlang had a noun class system in which the classes > had > semantic significance, and class was marked by a prefix on nouns. > Then if > the other morphological expressions of the noun class were lost, but > the > prefixes on nouns remained, you would be left with groups of > semantically > connected nouns with the same initial segments.
it's a good idea and I'll definitely consider using it. however, the language has now become part of a multilingual conworld, and the basic history of the language is already mapped out, so such changes would be very intrusive at this point. (not that that's necessarily a bad thing...) one of the ancestral tongues* was a loglang, so it might just work. thanks again! :) * there were four of them, and yes, I can explain that. Camilla "anaylenda nenenad"