Re: Marking and Imperatives
From: | Patrick Dunn <tb0pwd1@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, October 13, 1999, 16:58 |
On Wed, 13 Oct 1999, Grandsire, C.A. wrote:
> Ed Heil wrote:
> >
> > I don't have an answer for your question, but I do have a
> > clarification of it....
> >
> > The most common usages of a verb tend to be the least marked. For
> > indicative verbs, this is usually third singular and/or plural.
> > (English is weird in marking *only* this person/number combination.)
> >
>
> Comparing all the languages I know, I think the 1st person singular is
> also often the least marked in indicative verbs. But maybe it is an
> Indo-European feature.
In semetic languages, isn't it the 3rd person perfect that's eh least
marked?