Re: Just a Little Taste of Judean (Part 2)
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Monday, April 12, 1999, 8:12 |
Tom Wier wrote:
> Wait: what's causing the fricativization? Normally, when phonological
> rules come along, they're generalized as much as possible, so that, e.g.,
> all final voiceless stops will fricativize (or something like that).
Well, let me just add that that doesn't always happen, for instance,
English has lost final /mb/ and /ng/, both having become /m/ and /N/
respectively (hence the silent b in <comb>, etc.), while most dialects
HAVE retained /nd/, as in <and>.
In my idiolect, that <d> is something like the French <-t> in verbs,
that is, it's only pronounced preceding vowels (or in careful speach),
so that "this and that" is /DIs &n D&t/ or /DIs n= D&t/, but "over and
over" is /owvr= &nd owvr=/ or /owvr= @nd owvr=/ (= indicates syllabic
sounds)
--
"It's bad manners to talk about ropes in the house of a man whose father
was hanged." - Irish proverb
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