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Re: p <-> kw

From:Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
Date:Wednesday, December 18, 2002, 0:01
En réponse à Robert B Wilson <han_solo55@...>:

> are there any natlangs that show a p > kw sound change (or a b > gw > one)? > i've noticed that a few people sometimes pronounce /p/ as [k_w] and > /kw/ as [p] when speaking english and don't realize that they do it. >
Well, the k_w > p change is well known and documented, having happened for instance in many Indo-European languages (in many cases probably independently), like Greek, Germanic, P-Celtic languages, etc... (IIRC) Since k_w is basically a labiovelar stop, losing the velar articulation and you get a labial stop. The change in the other way seems a bit less plausible. To get a p
> k_w change, you need to *add* a velar articulation to a labial consonant.
Adding things meaning usually spending more strength on the sound, it's less likely to happen. But it doesn't mean that it's impossible! I'd just expect it to be much rarer than the opposite change. Latin shows this change sporadically (like in PIE penkwe > L. QUINQUE) but I suspect that in that case we have a phenomenon of assimilation, helped by the similarity of labial and labiovelar consonants. So, I'm probably not of much help, but I thought I would share anyway :)) . Christophe. http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr Take your life as a movie: do not let anybody else play the leading role.