Re: sound change question
From: | Roger Mills <romilly@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, January 24, 2001, 0:04 |
Yoon Ha Lee wrote:
>Quick question:
>Is it reasonable to have [c] and [c_h] (aspirated) evolve eventually into
>the affricates [dZ] (gains voicing) and [tS]? The change *sounds*
>reasonable to me, but I am loath to trust my intuition.>
Yes, seems reasonable. (I assume your [c] means a palatal stop-- not
affricate [ts] or [tS].) What if anything happens to other pairs of
plus/minus aspirate consonants? Are there original voiced stops too? and if
so, what happens to them?
I can't offhand think of natlang instances, but something comparable is
probably attested somewhere.......
It's sort of Grimm's Law (a portion thereof) in reverse. In Germanic,
*[voiceless] > [aspirate] and *[aspirate] > [voiced] and *[voiced] >
[voiceless]. (The famous MTA mnemonic) (Note that Gmc. "aspirates" later
became fricatives)
You have *[voiceless] > [voiced], and *[aspirate] > [voiceless] -- the
affrication could be a later development....? That's why I ask about
*voiced stops, and whether the change would affect the entire stop system,
or just the palatals.