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Re: Circumfixes?

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Sunday, June 10, 2001, 2:15
On Fri, 8 Jun 2001 19:16:54 -0500 Danny Wier <dawier@...> writes:
> I'm in the process of learning Semitic grammar. All I know is that > Arabic has three cases: > nom acc gen > definite -u -a -i > indefinite -un -an -in > Akkadian, I was told, has more cases. Hebrew has only one case, or > does it? > ~DaW~
- If you count the vowel-changes caused by the stress shifts in construct compounds, Hebrew has two cases. It also has a *very* limited 'destination' case found mostly in Biblical literature: yerushalayim = Jerusalem lirushalayim (le-yerushalayim) = to Jerusalem old 'destination' case: yerushalayma = to Jerusalem The 'destination' case (what's the real word?) is today mostly found in the fossilized form _habayta_, "homewards": labayit (le-ha-bayit) = to the house habayta (ha-bayit-a) = to home even though you'd expect them to mean the exact same thing. There are also many times in Biblical literature where a destination is expressed without either the _le-_ prefix or the _-a_ suffix, so you can find all variations: "i am going to Jerusalem": (le-) ~ ani holeikh lirushalayim (-a) ~ ani holeikh yerushalayma ( ) ~ ani holeikh yerushalayim When the word ends in /a/, it has the normal /t/ addition: "i am going to Gaza" = _ani holeikh `azata_ These are all, btw, accented on the syllable *before* the added /a/. -Stephen (Steg) "good week!"

Replies

Danny Wier <dawier@...>
J Matthew Pearson <pearson@...>