Re: ,Language' in language name?

On Tuesday 27 November 2001 18:45, Daniel Andreasson wrote:

> Could there be a correlation like this?
>
> developed conculture -> does not contain "language",
> but rather a toponym or some word that describes
> the people, or similar.
>
> no conculture -> contains "language", since there
> is no culture to refer to.
I don't think there's any such correlation. After all, many
real-world languages are called "language" (but in the language
itself, of course, so we don't notice until we learn it).

A toponym is only sensible if the culture interacts with neighbouring
cultures *while the language is developing*. There's hardly any
reason at all to call your language "language of <place>" unless
there are people from <other place> hearing you.

   Irina

--
           Varsinen an laynynay, saraz no arlet rastynay.
irina@valdyas.org (myself)     http://www.valdyas.org/irina/valdyas